I have been told that, given a differentiable function $f: \mathbb{R}^n\longrightarrow \mathbb{R}$, we can view $f'(x)$ as a linear operator from $\mathbb{R}^n$ to $\mathbb{R}$ for any $x$, which makes sense because it is a vector, and thus a linear operator. So $f'(x)[y] = \nabla f(x)^Ty$, basically by definition. But later in class, we used $f'(x)[y] = \underset{h\rightarrow 0^+}{\text{lim}}\frac{f(x + hy) - f(x)}{h}$, which I don't understand. Specifically, why is $y$ showing up inside the limit? To me, $f'(x)[y]$ means first take the derivative of $f$ at $x$, and then apply the result to $y$. So $y$ shouldn't appear in the limit definition of the derivative of $f$ at $x$, and yet here it just looks like the $y$ and the limit have been fused together.
So it seems like the two values are supposed to be equivalent, so should I just be treating the above equation as the definition for $f'(x)[y]$? If so, is there an easy way to see that the two notions of $f'(x)[y]$ are equivalent, i.e. that $\nabla f(x)^Ty = \underset{h\rightarrow 0^+}{\text{lim}}\frac{f(x + hy) - f(x)}{h}$, where $\nabla f(x) = \underset{h\rightarrow 0^+}{\text{lim}}\frac{f(x + h) - f(x)}{h}$?
By the way, I don't think it really matters whether or not the limit is a one-sided or two-sided limit, it was just posed to me as a one-sided limit.
Suppose that you define $f'(x)(y)$ as $\nabla f(x)^Ty$. Since$$\nabla f(x)=\left(\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}(x),\ldots,\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_n}(x)\right),$$then, if $\{e_1,\ldots,e_n\}$ is the standard basis of $\Bbb R^n$, we have, for each $k\in\{1,2,\ldots,n\}$, $f'(x)(e_k)=\nabla f(x)^Te_k$, since both numbers are equal to $\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_k}(x)$. But then, if $y\in\Bbb R^n$, $y$ can be written as $a_1e_1+a_2e_2+\cdots+a_ne_n$ and therefore, by linearity,$$f'(x)(y)=\nabla f(x)^Ty,$$since both numbers are equal to$$a_1\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_1}(x)+\cdots+a_n\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_n}(x).\tag1$$Now, note that$$\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(x+he_k)-f(x)}h=\frac{\partial f}{\partial x_k}(x).$$So, again by linearity,$$\lim_{h\to0}\frac{f(x+hy)-f(x)}h=(1)=f'(x)(y).$$