If we define
$$e^z=1+z+\frac{z^2}{2!}+\cdots$$
then it is single-valued.
However, if we write
$$e^z=e^{z\ln e}$$
then it is multi-valued.
Besides, $a^z$ is multi-valued in general. It is kind of strange if only when the base is $e$ that it is single-valued.
My thought: Is it true that there are two exponential functions, let's call them $\exp(z)$ and $e^z$?
Where $\exp(z)$ is defined by
$$\exp(z)=1+z+\frac{z^2}{2!}+\cdots$$
and is single-valued, while $e^z$ is defined by
$$e^z = \text{exp}(z\ln e)$$
and is multi-valued?
Here $\ln z$ is defined by $\exp(\ln z)=z$ and is multi-valued.
You run into problems with the second definition of the exponential, as the function $e^z$ on the complex plane is not 1-1. In $\mathbb{R}$, it is true that $e^x=e^y$ implies $x=y$, but for example, $e^0=1=e^{2\pi i}$ in $\mathbb{C}$ and $0 \neq 2\pi i$. So $e^z$ does not have an inverse--hence your second equation being multi-valued.