I am confused about the definition of normal linear functional.
In mamy reference books, when we define normal linear functionals , we require that the linear functional is positive. But in Kadison's book, the normal linear functional may not be positive.(See the theorem in the screenshot).
I don't understand why we need the positivity of linear functional when we defining the normality in many cases.

Kadison-Ringrose are very clear on this, in the section you are quoting. In previous sections, "normal" is only applied to states.
But in section 7.4, they state:
And in the page right before the one you quoted: