I'm trying to understand the definition of polycyclic groups.
A solvable group $G$ has two equivalent definitions:
$G$ has a subnormal series like $$G = H_n \rhd H_{n-1} \rhd \cdots \rhd H_0 = 1$$ s.t. each $H_{i-1}$ is normal in $H_i$ and $H_{i}/H_{i-1}$ is an abelian group for all $i \in \{1, \ldots, n\}$.
$G$ has a normal series like $$G = H_n \rhd H_{n-1} \rhd \cdots \rhd H_0 = 1$$ s.t. each $H_i$ is normal in $G$ and $H_{i}/H_{i-1}$ is an abelian group for all $i \in \{1, \ldots, n\}$.
Now Wikipedia says a polycyclic group is a solvable group in which the factors $H_{i}/G_{i-1}$ are cyclic but there is no requirement that each $H_i$ be normal in $G$:
In another direction, a polycyclic group must have a normal series with each quotient cyclic, but there is no requirement that each $H_{i}$ be normal in $G$. As every finite solvable group is polycyclic, this can be seen as one of the key differences between the definitions.
I don't understand this. If each $H_i$ is not normal in $G$ then the group $G$ doesn't even satisfy the definition of solvable groups. Furthermore, in a normal series, each $H_i$ is normal in $G$ by definition (cf. this)!
Could someone please explain what I'm missing here?
Confusion arises because the same term normal series is used differently in the literature. To also quote Wikipedia
So there are at least two schools:
As a side-effect of the multi-authorship, it is perhaps not completely enforceable that Wikipedia agree upon one of the two schemes consistently (perhaps it would be best to use only subnormal and invariant and get rid of the ambiguous normal)