Definition 1: Let $X$ be a normed space and $T:D(T)\subset X\rightarrow X$ be a linear operator. The spectrum of $T$ denoted by $\sigma(T)$ is defined to be $$ \sigma(T):=\{\lambda\in\mathbb{C}:\lambda I-T \quad\text{is not invertible}\} $$ Definition 2: $\rho(T):=\mathbb{C}\backslash\sigma(T)$ is the resolvent set of $T$.
Definition 3: $R(\cdot,T):\rho(T)\rightarrow \mathcal{L}(X)$ with $R(\lambda,T)=(\lambda I- T)^{-1}$ is the resolvent operator.
I always use the fact that the resolvent operator is bounded; however, I don't see why the "not invertible" part of definition 1 is enough to conclude this fact. Why is adding "$\lambda-T$ is bounded" unnecessary? $\quad$
Any hints are appreciated.
It is wrong if you don't assume that $X$ is complete. Let
$$X=c_{00}(\mathbb{R})= \{ (x_i)_{i\geq 1} \in l^{\infty}(\mathbb{R}) \vert \ \exists N\geq 1 \ \forall i\geq N: x_i=0\}$$
with the supremum norm. Consider
$$ T: X \rightarrow X, \quad T((x_i)_{i\geq 1}) = \left( \frac{1}{i} \cdot x_i \right)_{i\geq 1}.$$
This operator is invertible, however, its inverse
$$ T^{-1}: X \rightarrow X, \quad T((x_i)_{i\geq 1}) = \left( i \cdot x_i \right)_{i\geq 1} $$
is not bounded. I.e. $0\in \rho(T)$, but $(T-0 \cdot I)^{-1}$ is not bounded.
Completeness is needed to invoke some kind of closed graph theorem. Usually one works in the setting $X$ Banach space and $T$ has a closed graph (such mappings are called closed), respectively $T$ has a closed extension (such mappings are called closable). In this case we have for $\lambda\in \rho(T)$ that
$$ (\lambda I - T)^{-1} : X \rightarrow D(T)$$
has a closed graph and as both $X$ and $D(X)$ are Banach spaces one concludes by the closed graph theorem that $(\lambda I - T)^{-1}$ is bounded.