Let $K$ be a field of characteristic $0$. Let $a\in K$. Let $E:y^2=x^3+ax$ and $E': y^2=x^3-4ax$. There is an degree 2 isogeny $\phi : E\to E'$ given by $(x,y)\to (\frac{y^2}{x^2},\frac{y(a-x^2)}{x^2})$.
My question is, why is the value $\phi(0,0)$ is $O$(infinite point) ?
This video(https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=USe1SK9pjDY) includes $\phi(0,0)=O$ as definition, by can we derive this by homogenizing the map ? Thank you for your help.
First note that we must have $a \neq 0$ in order for the curves to be nonsingular. Writing the codomain in projective coordinates, we have that $\phi$ is given by \begin{align} \label{proj} \phi(x,y) = [y^2 : y(a-x^2) : x^2] \, . \tag{$*$} \end{align} Let $P = (0,0) \in E$. As suggested in the comments, we can determine $\phi(P)$ by computing the orders of vanishing of $x$ and $y$ at $P$. I claim that $\newcommand{\ord}{\operatorname{ord}} \ord_P(y) = 1$, so $y$ is a uniformizer at $P$, and $\ord_P(x) = 2$. This is apparent geometrically: the line $y = 0$ intersects $E$ transversely at $P$, while the line $x = 0$ is tangent.
We can also see this algebraically. Let $\newcommand{\O}{\mathcal{O}} \O_P$ be the local ring of $E$ at $P$, and let $\newcommand{\m}{\mathfrak{m}} \m = (x,y)$ be its maximal ideal. From the equation for $E$, we have $$ x(x^2 + a) = y^2 \in \m^2 $$ and since $x^2 + a$ is a unit in $\O_P$ (it doesn't vanish at $P$), then $x \in (y^2)$. Thus $\m = (x,y) = (y)$, so $\ord_P(y) = 1$ and $\ord_P(x) = \ord_P(y^2) = 2$.
As you noted, all entries evaluate to $0$ in the expression for $\phi$ in (\ref{proj}). Dividing each entry by the uniformizer $y$, we have $$ [y : (a-x^2) : x^2/y] $$ and since $$ \ord_P(x^2/y) = \ord_P(x^2) - \ord_P(y) = 4 - 1 = 3 \, , $$ then $x^2/y$ evaluated at $P$ is $0$. Thus \begin{align*} \phi(P) = [0 : (a - 0) : 0] = [0 : a : 0] = [0 : 1 : 0] \end{align*} since $a \neq 0$.