Depending on the parameter $\alpha$ study the convergence of the series $$\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{\log(\log{n})}{\log^\alpha{n}}$$
So for $\alpha \gt 0$ and $x \gt 1$ the function $f(x)=\frac{\log(\log{x})}{\log^\alpha{x}}$ is decreasing so I can use the integral test
which is divergent for $\alpha =1$
Is my reasoning right? I don't know what to do next
We have that eventually (notably for $n>e^e$)
$$\frac{\log(\log{n})}{\log^\alpha{n}}\ge \frac{1}{\log^\alpha{n}}$$
and for $\alpha>0$
$$\sum_{n=2}^\infty\frac{1}{\log^\alpha{n}}$$
diverges by limit comparison test with $\sum_{n=2}^\infty \frac1n$ indeed
$$\frac{\frac{1}{\log^\alpha{n}}}{\frac1n}=\frac{n}{\log^\alpha{n}}\to \infty$$