Consider the function $f:\mathbb{R}^3 \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$ defined by
$$f(x,y,z) = y^2z\chi_{(0,\infty)^3}.$$
I would like to find
$$\frac{\partial^3f}{\partial x\,\partial y\,\partial z}.$$
I would have thought that if $x,y,z >0$ then
$$\frac{\partial^3f}{\partial x\,\partial y\,\partial z} = \frac{\partial^2}{\partial x\,\partial y}y^2 = \frac{\partial}{\partial x}2y = 0.$$
In the other case the function would be identically $0$ and hence it will have $0$ derivative. Is this correct?
Yes, this is entirely correct. You may want to make sure that the derivative is actually defined at the 'edges' where $x=y=0$, $x=z=0$ or $y=z=0$.