I'm writing a dissertation about the probabilistic interpretation of Laplace's transform and I need to prove a formula about the first derivative.
Let $f \, : \, \left[0,+\infty\right)\, \to \mathbb{R}\,$ be a continuous and buonded function. We know that the Laplace's transform of $f$ is well defined in $\left[0,+\infty\right)$ since it exists a positive real number $M$ such that $ \left|f(x)\, e^{-\lambda\, x
}\right| \leq M e^{-\lambda x}\, \to \, 0$ for $x \to +\infty$. Suppose now that we want to compute the first derivative of the transform $\mathcal{L}\left[f(x)\right](\lambda)$, so applying the definition we get:
\begin{equation}
\begin{split}
\frac{\mbox{d}}{\mbox{d}\lambda}\mathcal{L}\left[f(x)\right](\lambda)&=\frac{\mbox{d}}{\mbox{d}\lambda}\int_{0}^{+\infty}f(x)\,e^{-\lambda x}\,dx.
\end{split}
\end{equation}
Once we get to this first step, we need to justify how the next step can be done, that is
\begin{equation}
\frac{\mbox{d}}{\mbox{d}\lambda}\int_{0}^{+\infty}f(x)\,e^{-\lambda x}\,dx=\int_{0}^{+\infty}\frac{\partial}{\partial\lambda}\left[f(x)\,e^{-\lambda x}\right]\,dx.
\end{equation}
I tried to use the Dominated Convergence theorem that is often use in these cases, since all we want to prove is that a limit symbol can be swapped with the integral one, but I can't really get to a proper proof. Do you have any ideas?
2026-04-05 04:39:17.1775363957
Derivative of the Laplace's transform of a function.
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You just need to find the correct theorem for differentiation under the integral. Anyways, from your context I assume for the abscissa of absolute convergence $\lambda >0$. We can hence take any compact interval $[a,b] \subset (0,\infty)$ and use theorem 3 on this page.