I am reading through Princeton's lectures in analysis and I am on the 10th page of the first book on Fourier series.
In analyzing the wave equation, they state that $\xi = x + t $ and $\eta = x -t$ and $v(\xi,\eta) = u(x,t)$ and then $$ \frac{\partial^2 v}{\partial \xi \partial \eta} = 0.$$
The partials are confusing me, but I need to know why that equates to zero. It might also be useful to note that $$ \frac{ \partial^2 u}{\partial x^2} = \frac{ \partial^2 u}{\partial t^2}. $$
Even a hint in the right direction would suffice. My differential calculus is rusty.
This is just an application of the chain rule.
$$v_\xi = v_xx_\xi + v_t t_\xi = u_x + u_t \\ v_{\xi\eta} = (u_x + u_t)_\eta = u_{xx} x_{\eta} + u_{xt}{t_\eta}+u_{tx}x_\eta + u_{tt}t_\eta = (x_\eta+t_\eta)(u_{xx}+u_{xt})$$
But $x_\eta+t_\eta = (1)+(-1) = 0$. Therefore $v_{\xi\eta}=0$.