I studied inverse derivatives, I had(probably classic question) asked to prove using the law of inverse derivatives that:
$\arcsin'(x) = 1/\sqrt{1-x^2}$
I got into:
$\arcsin'(x) = 1/\cos(\arcsin(x)) $
Because I did everything as I should I set $x = 0.5$ and checked and it looks like:
$\ 1/\sqrt{1-x^2} = 1/\cos(\arcsin(x)) \Rightarrow \sqrt{1-x^2} = \cos(\arcsin(x)) $
What I'm trying to understand is how could I know without checking the raw expressions with some x value that they are equals?, is there a method for transforming from $\cos(\arcsin(x))$ to $\sqrt{1-x^2}$?
See the following picture and use Pythagoras theorem.