I wanted to see how much calculus I could derive from the ground up using basic definitions.
I was able to show that for example
\begin{align} \frac{d}{dx}cx^n &= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{c \cdot(x+h)^n - cx^n}{h} \\&= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{c}{h} \cdot((x+h)^n - x^n) \\&= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{c}{h} \cdot\left(-x^n + \sum_{k=0}^{n}\binom{n}{k}x^kh^{n-k}\right) \\&= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{c}{h} \cdot\left(\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\binom{n}{k}x^kh^{n-k}\right) \\&= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{c}{h} \cdot\left(nh\sum_{k=0}^{n-1}\binom{n-1}{k}x^kh^{n-1-k}\right) \\&= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{c}{h} \cdot\left(nh(x+h)^{n-1}\right) \\&= \lim_{h \to 0} cn(x+h)^{n-1} \\&= cnx^{n-1} \end{align}
Which surprised me that it actually worked!
However when I tried the same thing for chain rule I was hopelessly stuck:
\begin{align} \frac{d}{dx}f(g(x))&= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(g(x+h)) - f(g(x))}{h} \end{align}
And sadly that is as far as I could go! I have no idea how you're supposed to simplify that any further.
Or should it be
\begin{align} \frac{d}{dx}f(g(x))&= \lim_{h \to 0} \frac{f(g(x)+h) - f(g(x))}{h} \end{align}
instead?
Chain rule is a tricky thing to prove; the proof follows the intuition of "cancellation" in $\frac{dy}{dx}= \frac{dy}{du}\frac{du}{dx}$. In particular, rewrite your limit as $$ \lim_{h\to 0} \frac{f(g(x+h))-f(g(x))}{g(x+h)-g(x)} \frac{g(x+h) - g(x)}{h} $$ Getting that first term into the desired form from here requires a careful treatment of the definition of a limit and continuity. Essentially, we need to argue that if we set $u(h)=g(x+h)$, then the limit of the first fraction can be rewritten as $$ \lim_{u\to g(x)} \frac{f(u) - f(g(x))}{u-g(x)} $$ Which is to say that the limit will be $f'(g(x))$.