Let $(x_n)$ be a sequence such that $(\forall m,n \in \mathbb{N}), |x_m-x_n|\ge\frac{1}{\min(m,n)}$. Is $(x_n)$ a Cauchy sequence? I know that a sequence is Cauchy if for every $\epsilon$ there exists $n_0\in \mathbb{N}$ such that for $n,m\ge n_0$ it follows that $|x_n-x_m|<\epsilon$. But here we have $|x_m-x_n|\ge \frac{1}{\min(m,n)}$. How can I prove whether this sequence is indeed a Cauchy. I either need to find $n_0$ or another way I guess is to try to prove that it converges. Frankly I'm not sure I even understand the statement.
Determine if a sequence is Cauchy
539 Views Asked by Bumbble Comm https://math.techqa.club/user/bumbble-comm/detail AtThere are 2 best solutions below
On
I think the likelihood is that you've misread the claim, or that there is a typo in the claim.
Firstly, it does not specify that $n \neq m$. If $n = m$ then $|x_{n}-x_{m}|=0$ so $ 0 \geq \frac{1}{\min{(n,m)}} $ which is a contradiction, so there are no such sequences as written.
If we refine the condition slightly so that $n\neq m$ then note that $ \min {(n,m)} \geq 1 $ so that $1 \geq \frac{1}{\min{(n,m)}} $ so, as Giuseppe mentioned $x_{n} = n$ works (since $ |n-m| \geq 1 \geq \frac{1}{\min{(n,m)}} $).
Now suppose that we take what's probably the correct interpretation of the claim: if $(x_{n})$ is a sequence such that $ (\forall n,m \in \mathbb{N}) |x_{m}-x_{n}| \leq \frac{1}{\min{(n,m)}} $, then $(x_{n})$ is Cauchy.
In this case, the strategy you outlined works perfectly well. We fix some $ \epsilon > 0 $ and look directly for some $ n_{0} $ for which we can guarantee that $ n,m>n_{0} \implies |x_{n}-x_{m}|<\epsilon $. The simple way to do this is to see that $ n,m > n_{0} \implies \frac{1}{\min{(n,m)}} < \frac{1}{n_{0}}$, so all we need is some $n_{0}$ such that $\frac{1}{n_{0}} < \epsilon $; in other words, $n_{0} > \frac{1}{\epsilon}$ we we know must exist by the Archimedian property of $\mathbb{R}$. (For instance, $n_{0} = \lceil \frac{1}{\epsilon} \rceil$ works.) If you're uncomfortable with this last step, it's worth learning more about the Archimedean principle, which is beyond the scope of this question.
Indeed, the answer is negative. If you consider the sequence $x_n=n+1$, this satisfies the hypotesis clearly but it is not a Cauchy sequence since it diverges.