The details provided are that the function is analytic and that its real part along the line $y=c x$ is constant. What conclusions can I draw from here? I think that this imposes $\frac{\partial u}{\partial x}=0 $ and $\frac{\partial u}{\partial y}=0 $ along the line, however I am unsure how to take it from here.
2025-01-13 00:14:10.1736727250
Determine the complex function $f\left ( z \right )$
192 Views Asked by Emir Šemšić https://math.techqa.club/user/emir-semsic/detail At
2
Consider the function $g(z) := \mathrm i (f((1+\mathrm ic)z)-f(0))$. Clearly $g$ is analytic iff $f$ is analytic. Moreover, $(1+\mathrm ic)z$ has the property that $y=cx$ iff $z\in\mathbb R$. Finally, for real $z$, clearly $g(z)$ has a zero imaginary part, that is, it is real.
So $g(x)$ can be any analytic function that maps real values to real values.