I have the following definitions.
The fundamental group of X with basepoint $x_0$ is given by:
$\pi_1(X,x_0)$ := {homotopic equivalence classes of loops in X with basepoint $x_0$}.
The open disk of center (a,b) and radius R is given by the formula:
$D = \big{\{}(x,y)\in\mathbb{R}^2:(x-a)^2 + (y-b)^2 < R^2\big{\}}$.
Now, I'm asked to determine $\pi_1(D^2)$. Is there no basepoint given because it's not relevant which basepoint we use? (Give that the basepoint does lie in the disk we're looking at). If I were to look at $\pi_1(D)$, I'd say that $\pi_1(D)$ equals the trivial set, since every pair of loops within D is homotopic. But when it concerns $\pi_1(D^2)$ I'm not so sure.
Q: What is $\pi_1(D^2)$?
1) One should talk about "fundamental group" as "fundamental class" has a different meaning in algebraic topology.
2) You are right for $D$, you can show by hand that $\pi_1(D^2) = 0$ (try to find an homotopy between any path and the constant path $(O,O)$ where $O$ is the center of the disk) or noticing that $\pi_1(X \times Y) \cong \pi_1(X) \times \pi_1(Y)$ for any topological spaces $X,Y$.