$$f(x)= \sum^{\infty}_{n=1}\frac{1}{(n+x)^2}$$ for $x \in [0, \infty)$
This above is a function which (with help) I have proved to be continuous on $[0, \infty)$
I now want to prove that $f$ is differentiable however I am struggling to see how.
I know that since $f$ is continuous, if is integrable which also applies to $f'$?
Furthermore the solution to this question posted (Uniform convergence of $f'$ on an interval implies locally uniform convergence of $f$) is clearly a related answer as I know that proving differentiability involves the uniform convergence of a sequence of functions.
Can anyone explain to me how the example I linked might be applied to my particular problem?
Many thanks!
we will be using following theorem
First note that $f_{n}(x)$ is differentiable $$f_n'(x) = \frac{-2}{(n+x)^3}$$
now we have to show that $f_{n}'(x)$ uniformly converges.we will use following theorem
since $$|f_{n}'(x)| \leq \frac{2}{n^3} , \sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{2}{n^3} <\infty$$
we have and uniform converges and hence $f$ is differentiable on every closed interval $[a,b] , a\geq0, b \geq 0$ and hence differentiable on $[0, \infty)$