Consider $X=(X_1,\ldots,X_n)^T\sim\mathcal{N}(\mu,V)$. Show that then $X_i\sim\mathcal{N}(\mu_i,V_{ii})$ for all $1\leqslant i\leqslant n$.
Good day!
Ok, I have to determine the marginal distribution. To do so I have to calculate
$$f_i(X_i)=\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\ldots\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}f(x_1,\ldots,x_n)d\, x_1\ldots d\, x_{i-1}d\, dx_{i+1}\ldots d\, x_n$$
with
$$f(x_1,\ldots,x_n)=(2\pi)^{-n/2}\text{det}(V)^{-1/2}\exp\left\{-\frac{1}{2}(x-\mu)^T V^{-1}(x-\mu)\right\}.$$
My problem is that I do not know how to calculate
$$\text{det}(V)^{-1/2}$$
and
$$-\frac{1}{2}(x-\mu)^T V^{-1}(x-\mu).$$
Anyhow, it is $$V=\begin{pmatrix}var(X_1) & \ldots & cov(X_1,X_n)\\\vdots & \ddots & \vdots\\cov(X_n,X_1) & \ldots & var(X_n)\end{pmatrix}=\begin{pmatrix}\sigma_1^2 & \ldots & cov(X_1,X_n)\\\vdots & \ddots & \vdots\\cov(X_n,X_1) & \ldots & \sigma_n^2\end{pmatrix}.$$
Can somebody help me, please?
Greetings
Miro
Please do correct me if I am wrong. But to my knowledge there is a theorem saying that $X$ is multivariate normal distributed iff $a^TX$ is univariate normal distributed for any $a\in\mathbb{R}^n$.
So my suggestion is to choose $a=e_i=(0,\ldots,0,1,0,\ldots,0$ with the $1$ at the ith position. Then $a^TX=X_i$. So we know that $X_i$ is univariate normal distributed.
Because it is $E(X_i)=\mu_i$ and $Var(X_i)=\sigma_i^2=V_{ii}$ I think everything is shown?
As I said: Please correct me if I am wrong.