There are not any other assumptions, so is it necessary for $\mu,\nu$ to be $\sigma$-finite?
Suppose $\nu, \mu$ and $\rho$ are finite signed measures, $\nu\ll \mu$ and $\rho \ll \nu$. Then
$\dfrac{d \rho }{d\mu} = \dfrac{d\rho} {d\nu}\cdot\dfrac{d\nu} {d\mu}.$
The measures don't have to be finite, but they should all be $\sigma$-finite for all derivatives to exists.