Let $$A = \left(\begin{matrix} -1 & 3 & -1 \\-3 & 5 & -1 \\ -3 & 3 & 1\end{matrix}\right)$$ be a matrix.
The characteristic polynomial of $A$ is:
$$(\lambda-2)^2(\lambda-1)$$
According to my professor's notes, since $\lambda=2$ is an eigenvalue of $A$ and the fact that:
$$\text{rank}(2I-A)=\text{rank}\left(\begin{matrix} 3 & -3 & 1 \\3 & -3 & 1 \\ 3 & -3 & 1\end{matrix}\right)=1$$ the matrix is diagonalizable.
However, I can't understand why.
What is the connection between the rank of $(\lambda I-A)$ and matrix diagonalization?
Thanks,
Alan
An $n \times n$ matrix is diagonalizable if(f) we can find $n$ linearly independent eigenvectors. In particular, this is equivalent to saying that for each eigenvector $\lambda$, we have a number of eigenvalues equal to the algebraic multiplicity of that eigenvalue (i.e. the associated exponent in the characteristic polynomial).
Because the rank of $A - 2I$ is $1$, the rank-nullity theorem tells us that the nullity is $2$, which means that there are $2$ linearly independent eigenvectors associated with $\lambda = 2$. Since $1$ is an eigenvalue, we have an eigenvector associated with $\lambda = 1$. So, in total, we have $3$ linearly independent eigenvectors. So, $A$ is diagonalizable.