Let $\varphi: [c,d] \rightarrow [a,b]$ be a diffeomorphism between two closed intervals in $\mathbb{R}$. I am following a proof that claims that since $\varphi$ is a diffeomorphism either $\varphi' > 0$ everywhere or $\varphi' < 0$ everywhere.
So far I have the following: assume there exists $x_0$ and $x_1$ such that $\varphi'(x_0) > 0$ and $\varphi'(x_1) < 0$. Then there must be some $x, y \in [a,b]$ such that $\varphi(x) = \varphi(y)$ which contradicts injectivity. But I'm having trouble making this argument solid. Any advice?
Darboux's theorem says that a derivative has the intermediate value property. More specifically, if $\varphi$ is differentiable on an interval, and on that interval we have two points $x_0, x_1$ such that $\varphi'(x_0)>0$ and $\varphi'(x_1)<0$, then there must be an $x_2$ between $x_0$ and $x_1$ such that $\varphi'(x_2) = 0$.
At this point (to be precise, at $\varphi(x_2)$) the inverse of $\varphi$, if it exists, cannot be differentiable. But that contradicts the definition of a diffeomorphism.