I am trying to see how compounding interest and inflation affects purchasing power.
Let $x>y> n>1$. Does $x^n-y^n > (x-y+1)^n$ hold ?
I am trying to see how compounding interest and inflation affects purchasing power.
Let $x>y> n>1$. Does $x^n-y^n > (x-y+1)^n$ hold ?
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Consider: $x = 3.00001$, $y = 3$, $n = 2$