- Let $f,g$ be two functions from $\mathbb{R}$ to $\mathbb{R}$. Assume for all $x$ $f(x)g(x)=0$, then
i) then either $f(x)=0$ for all $x$ or $g(x)=0$ for all $x$.
ii) then for all $x$ either $f(x)=0$ or $g(x)=0$.
My answer is:Assume for all $x$ the equation $f(x)g(x)=0$ holds. Let $f\left( x\right) =\begin{cases}1, & x=1\\ 0,& x\neq 1\end{cases}$ and $g\left( x\right) =\begin{cases}1, & x=2\\ 0,& x\neq 2\end{cases}$. So, these works for the equation but it doesn't imply that for all $x$, $f(x)$ or for all $x$, $g(x)$ must be zero.
Can you check that does my answer works i) and ii)? And can you explain Differences of between ''either $f(x)=0$ for all $x$ or $g(x)=0$ for all $x$'' AND ''for all $x$ either $f(x)=0$ or $g(x)=0$''?
When you say either $f(x)=0$ for all $x$ or $g(x)=0$ for all $x$ you have to have one of your functions identically zero for all $ x$.
On the other hand for all $x$ either $f(x)=0$ or $g(x)=0$ simply means the product of your functions must be identically zero.
As you see, the first statement implies the second one but the second does not imply the first one.