By substitution I get $ln(ln(x))$. Partially something completely different:
$$\int \frac{1}{x \ln(x)} = \int \frac{1}{x} \frac{1}{\ln(x)} dx=\frac{\ln(x)}{\ln(x)} - \int -\frac{1}{x \ln(x) ^2} dx$$
$$\int \frac{1}{x \ln(x)}dx=1+C+\int \frac{1}{x \ln(x)}dx$$
Provided that this is correct, it doesn't really solve the integral - why is that?
Side info: this is not homework.
This method will work for an integral of the form $\displaystyle\int\frac{(\ln x)^r}{x}dx$ if $r\ne-1$, since then
$u=(\ln x)^r, dv=\frac{1}{x}dx$ gives $\displaystyle\int\frac{(\ln x)^r}{x}dx=(\ln x)^{r+1}-r\int\frac{(\ln x)^r}{x}dx$, so
$\displaystyle(1+r)\int\frac{(\ln x)^r}{x}dx=(\ln x)^{r+1}+C$ and so $\displaystyle\int\frac{(\ln x)^r}{x}dx=\frac{1}{r+1}(\ln x)^{r+1}+C$.
(Of course, this is more easily found by substituting $u=\ln x$.)
However, this gives no useful result when $r=-1$, and it does not lead to a contradiction since the integral is only determined up to a constant.