I came across this theorem in calculus: If fx and fy exist near (a,b) and are continous at (a,b) then f(x, y) is differentiable at (a,b)
What confuses me is that when I look at solutions to questions that require you to use the above theorem, the solutions only find fx and fy and determine if they are continous at (a,b) but they don't show that those partial derivatives exist near (a,b) as well. I want to know if finding fx and fy is and showing they are continous at (a,b) is enough and why?
Example question: Given f(x, y) = (x + 3y)^(1/2). Is the function differentiable at (1, 2).
Since $f_x(x,y)=(x+3y)^{-1/2}$ and $f_y(x,y)=3(x+3y)^{-1/2}$, both of which are continuous at $(1,2)$, $f$ is differentiable there.