Let, $f:\mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ be a function such that $f(x+1)=f(x)$ for all $x\in \mathbb R$. Then which of the followings are correct?
(a) $f$ is bounded.
(b) $f$ is bounded if it is continuous.
(c) $f$ is differentiable if it is continuous.
(d) $f$is uniformly continuous if it is continuous.
Here, we find that $f$ is a periodic function with period $1$. So, it is bounded. So, option (a) is true & (b) is false. Am I right?
But what about the continuity & differentiability?
First: Logically (a) implies (b), so it cannot be that (a) is true and (b) is false. In fact $$\mbox{bounded $\Rightarrow$ (continuous $\Rightarrow$ bounded )}$$
Now, one can see that if $f$ is continuous, then it is bounded on $[0,1]$ by the Weierstrass theorem. By periodicity, it is bounded on the whole $\mathbb{R}$. So (b) is true. Moreover $f$ is also uniformly continuous using hte same argument (and Heine - Cantor theorem). So (d) is true.
A counterexample for (a) s $f(x) = \tan (\pi x) $ extended by $f(\frac{1}{2}) = f(1) = \dots = 0$, which is unbounded and periodic. So (a) is false.
Finally, (c) is clearly false. A counterexample can be constructed just extending by periodicity a continuous non differentiable function on $[0,1]$ having $f(0) = f(1)$.