By the chain rule, $$\frac{d}{dx}\arccos(\sin x) = \cos x \;\cdot\; \frac{-1}{\sqrt{1-(\sin x)^2}} = \frac{-\cos x}{\sqrt{\cos^2x}} = -1$$
Without assuming the differential of $\arccos(x)$, one can also let $y = \arccos(\sin x)$ and then differentiate $\cos y = \sin x$ implicitly to eventually reach the same result.
And yet, $$ \int -1 \;dx = -x + c $$
Does this mean that $\arccos(\sin x)$ can be expressed in the form $-x + c$? If so, what is the value of $c$ and how can this be proven? If not, where is the flaw in my logic above?
Actually, $$\frac{d}{dx}\left[\arccos (\sin(x))\right]=\frac{-\cos(x)}{|\cos(x)|}=\begin{cases}-1\qquad\text{if $x\in\left(-\frac{\pi}{2}\pm 2k\pi,\frac{\pi}{2}\pm 2k\pi\right)$}\\1\qquad~~~\text{if $x\in\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\pm 2k\pi,\frac{3\pi}{2}\pm 2k\pi\right)$}\end{cases}$$ and from this we can show that $\arccos (\sin(x))$ is not a linear function, but rather a piecewise "zig-zag" function (I recommend graphing the function).