If $(V, \langle \cdot, \cdot \rangle)$ is a finite-dimensional inner product space and $f,g : \mathbb{R} \longrightarrow V$ are differentiable functions, a straightforward calculation with components shows that
$$ \frac{d}{dt} \langle f, g \rangle = \langle f(t), g^{\prime}(t) \rangle + \langle f^{\prime}(t), g(t) \rangle $$
This approach is not very satisfying. However, attempting to apply the definition of the derivative directly doesn't seem to work for me. Is there a slick, perhaps intrinsic way, to prove this that doesn't involve working in coordinates?
Observe that $$ \begin{align*} \frac{1}{h} & \left[ \langle f(t+h),\, g(t+h)\rangle - \langle f(t),\, g(t) \rangle \right] \\ & = \frac{1}{h} \left[ \langle f(t+h),\, g(t+h)\rangle - \langle f(t),\, g(t+h)\rangle \right] + \frac{1}{h} \left[ \langle f(t),\, g(t+h)\rangle - \langle f(t),\, g(t)\rangle \right] \\ &= \left\langle \frac{1}{h} \left[ f(t+h) - f(t) \right],\, g(t+h) \right\rangle + \left\langle f(t),\, \frac{1}{h} \left[ g(t+h) - g(t) \right] \right\rangle. \end{align*} $$ As $h\to 0$ the first expression converges to $$ \frac{d}{dt} \langle f(t), g(t) \rangle $$ and the last expression converges to $$ \langle f^{\prime}(t), g(t) \rangle + \langle f(t), g^{\prime}(t) \rangle $$ by definition of the derivative, by continuity of $g$ and by continuity of the scalar product. Hence the desired equality follows.
Note that this doesn't use finite-dimensionality and that the argument is the exact same as the one for the ordinary product rule from calculus.