I've just started high school calculus. To differentiate trig functions the rule is $(f \circ g)' = g'(x) \cdot f'(g(x))$
So for $\tan(-x)$ would this not be $-\sec^2(-x)$? The answer says $-\sec^2(x)$ which is confusing as this was the only one I got incorrect.
Note that $$\sec(\theta)=\frac{1}{\cos(\theta)}$$ and $$\cos(-\theta)=\cos(\theta)$$ So your answer is correct, really.