I want to disprove the following statement:
"if $L$ is the union of infinitely many regular languages, then $L$ is guaranteed to be a regular language."
I don't know where to start. Any hint will be appreciated.
2026-03-26 07:33:31.1774510411
disproving union of infinitely many regular languages
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Every finite language is regular. Pick any language of which you know it isn't regular and write it as the union of infinitely many finite languages.