For a situation to be modelled using a Binomial distribution, two of the pre-conditions are:
A: The probability of success, denoted $p$, remains the same from trial to trial.
and
B: The $n$ trials are independent.
Now I don't understand how these are distinct.
The way I think about it
- If the trials are independent then $p$ remains constant , if $B$ then $A$.
(I'm not so sure about the next one)
- If $p$ remains constant from trial to trial (the outcome of one trial does not affect the probability of the outcome of any other) then the trials are independent , if $A$ then $B$.
So $A$ and $B$ are equivalent and one is redundant?
Another way to think about it, but I can't come up with an example, is there a scenario where one of $A$ and $B$ could be true and the other false?
A and B are not equivalent and not redundant. Just for an example, think to flip $n$ coins with probability $\mathbb{P}[H]=\frac{1}{k}$; $k =\{2,3,4,...,n-1\}$. (only the first coin is fair...)
If the events are independent but the probability of success is not constant.
If X is the rv "numbers of H" you cannot use a binomial distribution