I know that if you have $A\lor(B\land C)$ and apply distributivity rule you will get $(A\lor B)\land(A\lor C)$, but what if you have $A\lor\neg(B\land C)$? Can you apply the same rule, and if so what would be the result of it?
Thanks
I know that if you have $A\lor(B\land C)$ and apply distributivity rule you will get $(A\lor B)\land(A\lor C)$, but what if you have $A\lor\neg(B\land C)$? Can you apply the same rule, and if so what would be the result of it?
Thanks
You can't apply distributivity to $A \vee \neg(B \wedge C)$, but note that by De Morgan's laws $$A \vee \neg(B \wedge C) \equiv A \vee \neg B \vee \neg C.$$