I'm asked to show that the harmonic series $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\cfrac1n=1+\cfrac12+\cfrac13+\cfrac14+...$$ is divergent.
I figured it would be satisfactory enough to note that $n>1$ for all $n>1$, and so the limit of $\cfrac1n$ will approach $0$ as $n\rightarrow\infty$, then so too should its sum converge. Instead, my textbook lists out the terms $s_8, s_{16}, s_{32}$, and so on. But I have no clue what they're doing beyond $s_2$; \begin{align*} s_4&=1+\frac12+\biggr(\frac13+\frac14\biggr)>\frac12+\biggr(\frac14+\frac14\biggr)=1+\frac22 \\ s_8 &=1+\frac12+\biggr(\frac13+\frac14\biggr)+\biggr(\frac15+\frac16+\frac17+\frac18\biggr)>1+\frac12+\biggr(\frac14+\frac14\biggr)+\biggr(\frac18+\frac18+\frac18+\frac18\biggr)=1+\frac12+\frac12+\frac12=1+\frac32\end{align*}
And this continues infinitely. I don't understand exactly what's going on, especially the portions that repeat $1/n$ at the same value $n$ inside the parentheses.
Can someone explain what's happening?
For a full explanation:
Just because $x_n → 0$ as $n→\infty$ doesn't mean that the sum converges. The inverse is true however: if $x_n$ didn't go to $0$ as $n → \infty $ we would know the sum diverges.
Now to explain what is going on, the proof groups the sum into groups with a lower bound of $\frac{1}{2}$. If does so by making an $n$-th grouping as follows:
\begin{equation*} \begin{split} \sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{n} & = 1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}+...+ \frac{1}{2^{k-1}+1}+...+\frac{1}{2^k}+... \\ & = 1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{3}+\frac{1}{4}+...+ \left(\frac{1}{2^{k-1}+1}+...+\frac{1}{2^k}\right)+...\\ & \geq 1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{4}+\frac{1}{4}+...+ \left(\frac{1}{2^{k}}+...+\frac{1}{2^k}\right)+... \\& = 1+\frac{1}{2}+\frac{1}{2}+...+\frac{1}{2}+... \\& = 1+\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{1}{2} \end{split} \end{equation*}
and you can do this grouping infinitely many times which gives you infinitely many $\left(\frac{1}{2}\right)$s in the sum, which implies our lower bound diverges which implies our original sum diverges.