In our lecture, we defined a sequence $\left(a_n\right)_{n\in\mathbb N}$ to be divergent if it does not converge, and additionally to be divergent to $\pm \infty$, iff: $$\forall \epsilon \in \mathbb R: \exists N \in \mathbb N: \forall n > N: \pm a_n\ge \pm\epsilon$$
But I do not see how that could imply the negation of the convergence definition: $$ \neg\exists a \in \mathbb R:\forall \epsilon > 0: \exists N \in \mathbb N: \forall n \ge N: \left|a_n-a\right|<\epsilon\\ \Leftrightarrow \forall a \in \mathbb R:\exists \epsilon > 0: \forall N \in \mathbb N: \exists n \ge N: \left|a_n-a\right|>\epsilon $$
$\dots$Mainly because I just do not see how one an switch the last 2 Quantors.
How can one (elegantly) prove this implication?
Assuming that $$\forall \epsilon \in \mathbb R: \exists N \in \mathbb N: \forall n > N: \pm a_n\ge \pm\epsilon$$ which you will agree implies that $$\forall a \in \mathbb R: \exists N \in \mathbb N: \forall n > N: |a_n|\ge |a|+1\tag{$\ast$}$$ one is asked to show that $$\forall a \in \mathbb R:\exists \epsilon > 0: \forall N \in \mathbb N: \exists n \ge N: \left|a_n-a\right|>\epsilon\tag{$\circ$} $$ Well, I say that, by the triangular inequality, $\left|a_n-a\right|\geqslant|a_n|-|a|$ hence $(\ast)$ implies $$\forall a \in \mathbb R: \forall N \in \mathbb N: \exists n \ge N: \left|a_n-a\right|>1\tag{$\dagger$} $$ hence $(\circ)$ holds for $\epsilon=1$. Surely you can prove that $(\ast)$ implies $(\dagger)$?