I was trying to figure out the property of dividing by fraction : $\frac{x}{\frac{a}{b}} = \frac{x\cdot b}{a}$
An other representation for this problem is to show $X\div (A\div B) = (X\cdot A)\div B$.
A simple proof, is by multiplying and dividing by $\frac{b}{a}$ which leads to the wished result of $x\cdot \frac{b}{a}$.
My questions are, Is there a reason why this method of proving works? for me it seems like a "trick". A second question, do you have an other way to prove it? My searching so far led mostly to intuitive explanations about the concept of dividing.
You can only use this "trick", because of a number of old assumptions that you're making. Namely, your elements a and b are real numbers, and the real numbers form a Field. In a field, I am guaranteed an inverse for every element, so 1/a and 1/b are what we call these inverses. If you wanted a more thorough proof, you would go back and show why you're guaranteed inverses in a Field.