If we had $f(x)=x^4+1$ and $g(x)=4x+1$ in $\Bbb Z_5$, I am curious how to divide $\dfrac{f(x)}{g(x)}$ since the leading coefficient is not $1$. Would we have to multiply $g(x)$ by $4$'s inverse? Thanks!
2026-04-02 15:49:58.1775144998
Division of polynomials in a field
39 Views Asked by user384316 https://math.techqa.club/user/user384316/detail AtRelated Questions in ABSTRACT-ALGEBRA
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