Let $f: \mathbb R \to \mathbb R$ be continuous function. Does $f$ map every bounded sequence to a bounded sequence?
Since we are talking about bounded sequence, so maybe we can take $\{1/n\}$ in $(0,1)$. It is bounded here. If we take continuous function $x\mapsto \dfrac 1x$, it would map the sequence to $\{n\}$, which is unbounded.
So I guess the answer to the given question should be No. But answer key says Yes.
Let $(a_n)$ be a bounded sequence. Then there exists a closed interval $[p,q]$ such that $a_n\in[p,q]$, for all $n$.
Since $f$ is continuous, the image of the compact set $[p,q]$ is a closed and bounded set (and also an interval, actually).
Why does this fail for the sequence $(1/n)$ and $f(x)=1/x$, over $\mathbb{R}_{>0}$? There is no closed and bounded interval $[p,q]$ cointained in $\mathbb{R}_{>0}$ such that $1/n\in[p,q]$, for all $n$.