Let $(a_n)$ be a sequence in $\mathbb{R}$ and let $b_n = a_{n+1} - a_n $ be a zero sequence. According to my intuition, I would say that $a_n$ converges. But my solution says otherwise. How could that be? I just can't find a counterexample.
2026-04-05 09:13:34.1775380414
Does $b_n = a_{n+1} - a_n $ is a zero sequence implies $a_n$ is convergent?
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$$a_n = \sum_{k=1}^n \frac 1 k$$