Does every mod p have at least one element with a non-identical inverse?
I very much suspect this is true, but how can I prove it? For example, in mod 5, some elements have inverses that are not themselves ${2,3}$ and some have themselves as inverses ${1,4}$. Am I assured that every prime $p\gt 2$ will have at least one element that is not its own inverse (almost certainly yes)? How do I prove that?
$x$ is its own inverse $\bmod p$ iff $x^2\equiv 1\pmod p$ and this has only the two solutions $\pm1\pmod p$ (put differently, $p\mid x^2-1=(x-1)(x+1)$ implies $p\mid x-1$ or $p\mid x+1$).