If $f(x)$ is integrable and for all $x \in \mathbb{R}$, $f(x) \ne 0$, then is $1/f(x)$ integrable ?
I tried to prove that by Riemann or by Darboux's theorem but I couldn’t prove that.
2026-04-02 01:00:16.1775091616
Does $f$ being Riemann-integrable on $\mathbb{R}$ implies the same for $1/f$?
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