Does the following equality hold: $$\frac{n(A+B)}{2}+\frac{m(C+D)}{2}=1+\frac{nB+mD}{nA+mC}?$$ This seems to be implied in the given solution to a course problem I'm working on, but I can't follow the reasoning. (I'm hoping this is just a fraction-manipulation problem; including the context would make the question considerably longer.)
2026-04-11 18:05:50.1775930750
Does $\frac{n(A+B)}{2}+\frac{m(C+D)}{2}=1+\frac{nB+mD}{nA+mC}$?
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