My question is simply as the title suggests. If I am not mistaken, the norm of the Sobolev space is "stronger" but I have yet to figure out what this means in this context. I do appreciate any input.
2026-02-26 23:34:26.1772148866
Does it hold that $f_n \rightarrow f$ in $W^{1,2}(\Omega)$ imply $f_n \rightarrow f$ in $L^2(\Omega)$?
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