Let $\{v_1, \ldots, v_n\}$ be an orthonormal basis of an inner product space $V$ and a linear $F:V\to V$ s.t. for all $j$: $$\langle Fv_j, Fv_j \rangle = \langle F^*v_j, F^*v_j \rangle.$$ Does it imply that $F$ is normal?
At first, I thought that we just need to set $T:=F^*F-FF^*$ and then $\langle Tv_j, v_j \rangle=0$ would imply that $T=0$ but it doesn't (any non-zero matrix with zeros on the diagonal is a counterexample).
It looks like the problem boils down to
Let $A^*A-AA^*$ have zeros on the diagonal. Does $A^*A=AA^*$ hold?
Let $F=\begin{bmatrix} 0 & 1 \\ 0 & 0\end{bmatrix}$. It is easy to see that $F$ is not normal. Then $F^*F-F F^* = \begin{bmatrix} -1 & 0 \\ 0 & 1\end{bmatrix}$.
Let $v_1 = {1 \over \sqrt{2}}(1,1)^T, v_2 ={1 \over \sqrt{2}} (1,-1)^T$. These are orthonormal and $\langle v_k ,(F^*F-F F^*)v_k \rangle = 0$ for $k=1,2$.