Given that $t\in\mathbb R$ and $n$ is a positive odd integer , does the following limit exist ?
$$L_{t,n}=\lim_{x\to\infty}\left( (t+x)^{\frac{1}{n}}+(t-x)^{\frac{1}{n}}\right)$$
For $t=0$ ,
$$\lim_{x\to\infty}\left( (x)^{\frac{1}{n}}+(-x)^{\frac{1}{n}}\right)= \lim_{x\to\infty}\left( (x)^{\frac{1}{n}}-(x)^{\frac{1}{n}}\right)=0$$
(Because $n$ is a positive odd integer , we can take the negative sign out)
Now , my speculation is that $t$ , whatever it's value be, being just a finite real number , it's effect should be decreasing as $x$ increases. And as $x\to\infty$ , the effect of $t$ will be negligible. Hence , the limit should be equal to zero $\forall t\in\mathbb R$
However , online calculators are saying that limit does not exist. And Wolfram alpha is giving weird results like $L_{1,3}= {(-1)}^{\frac{1}{6}}.\infty$
Since n is an odd natural number, we have: $$\sqrt[n]{t+x} + \sqrt[n]{t-x}= \sqrt[n]{x+t}- \sqrt[n]{x-t}$$ by the Identity $$a^n - b^n = (a-b)(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2}*b +... + b^{n-1})$$ put $a= \sqrt[n]{x+t}$, and $b= \sqrt[n]{x-t}$.
Now, you want to multiply and divide the expression by $(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2}*b +... + b^{n-1})$. Then, you get $$\sqrt[n]{x+t}-\sqrt[n]{x-t} = \frac{2t}{(a^{n-1} + a^{n-2}*b +... + b^{n-1})}$$ It is now very easy to see why your claim is true.