I know that $\ln(-1)$, or the logarithm, is not defined for negative numbers. But I came up with a short proof that leads to a contradiction.
$\ln(1)=0$
$\ln(-1*-1)=0$
Since everything is real, by the logarithm property, this equals to
$\ln(-1)+\ln(-1)=0$
$ 2\ln(-1)=0$
Use whatever method you want, but basically $\ln(-1)$ would have to be $0$. To look at it from a different perspective, use the complex definition of the logarithm so that $\ln(-1)=\pi i$.
$2\ln(-1)=0$
$2\pi i=0$, which is not true (obviously)
If you only work with real numbers, then the equality $\ln\bigl((-1)^2\bigr)=2\ln(-1)$ makes no sense, since $\ln(-1)$ is undefined. And if you are willing to work with complex numbers, then you have a problem: there is not function $\ln\colon\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}\longrightarrow\mathbb C$ such that$$(\forall z,w\in\mathbb{C}\setminus\{0\}):\ln(zw)=\ln(z)+\ln(w).$$