Assuming log is base 2, if I know that:
log $f(n) = O($log $g(n))$. Does this imply that $f(n) = O(g(n))$?
I understand that the converse is true.
2026-05-16 04:55:23.1778907323
Does log $f(n) = O($log $g(n))$ imply $f(n) = O(g(n))?$
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No. For example, $\log(n^2)=O(\log(n))$.