Does $\mathbb{Q}\times\omega_1$ embed into $\omega_1$?

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$\mathbb{Q}\times\omega_1$ has the lexicographic ordering.

By embedding, I mean an order preserving map from $\mathbb{Q}\times\omega_1$ to $\omega_1$

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No, it does not: it’s not well-ordered, as you can see by considering just the subset $\Bbb Z^-\times\{0\}$.