Looking for exercises for my students, I stumbled upon this series $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}(-1)^n\frac{1}{\sqrt{1}+\sqrt{2}+\cdots+\sqrt{n}}$$ which can be easily seen to be convergent thanks to the Leibniz Criterion. I forgot tho to put the $(-1)^n$ in the equation and started to try to solve it! Eventually I found out I missed a piece. Anyway I convinced myself that $$\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{1}{\sqrt{1}+\sqrt{2}+\cdots+\sqrt{n}}$$ should converge anyway, but am unable to prove it!
Thanks!
You can rewrite the general term as $$ \frac{1}{\sqrt{1}+\sqrt{2}+\dots+\sqrt{n}} = \frac{1}{n}\frac{n}{\sqrt{1}+\sqrt{2}+\dots+\sqrt{n}} \le \frac{1}{n}\frac{1}{(n!)^{1/2n}}, $$ by the arithmetic-geometric means inequality. By writing $$ (n!)^2 = [n\cdot 1]\cdot[(n-1)\cdot 2]\cdot\dots\cdot[1\cdot n] \ge n\cdot n\cdot \dots \cdot n = n^n, $$ and taking $4n$-th roots, we obtain $(n!)^{1/2n} \ge n^{1/4}$. Hence $$ \frac{1}{n}\frac{1}{(n!)^{1/2n}} \le \frac{1}{n}\frac{1}{n^{1/4}} = \frac{1}{n^{5/4}}, $$ and $$ \sum_{n=1}^\infty \frac{1}{n^{5/4}} $$ converges by the $p$-test. Hence the original series converges by comparison.