Let $\Pi \in \Sigma^\infty$ be the decimal representation of $\pi$ where $\Sigma=\{0..9\}$. It is not known whether $\Pi$ contains each natural number. On the other hand, no number is known not to occur in $\Pi$. (Hope I've got that right)
First of all: is this property unique to $\pi$ or do all irrational numbers share it? UPDATE: As pointed out by Brian and MJD, irrationality is completely unrelated: 1. there are irrational numbers which are known not to contain all numbers in their representation (Brian) 2. there are irrational numbers whose representation contains all numbers (MJD).
At any event, I think it should be much easier to show that almost all numbers are present, i.e. $ \exists N\in\mathbb{N}\forall k>N\exists p\in\Sigma^\star\exists s\in\Sigma^\infty: \Pi=pR(k)s$ where $R:\mathbb{N} \to \Sigma^\star$ maps each number to its decimal representation. So "allmost all" here means all except finitely many.
Has something like this been proven or disproven?
In general I don't think it's possible to construct a non-repetitive stream of symbols $\sigma \in \Sigma^\infty $ that does not contain almost all $w\in\Sigma^\star$ ("almost all" with respect to some enumeration of $\Sigma^\star$). (EDIT: This is possible as Brian points out)
Every decimal that is not eventually repeating represents an irrational number, so it’s very easy to construct irrational numbers that do not have the property, e.g., $0.01001000100001\dots~$.