I was reading about dynamic logic over at wikipedia as a possible lead on a previous question. However, its not making a lot of sense to me. In particular, wikipedia says that
The constant action $0$ ... does nothing and does not terminate, whereas the constant action $1$ ... does nothing but does terminate.
That's fine, although its slightly odd that they refer to both $0$ and $1$ as "the constant action." I feel like only $0$ should be referred to as the constant action, since $1$ does something fairly drastic, in particular it terminates the program. Anyway, we then come to the following axiom
$$(A1) \;\;[0]p$$
which apparently reads, "it is necessary that if we enact the constant action that does nothing, then $p$ will hold," which seems like nonsense. We also have the following corollary
$$(T1) \neg \langle 0 \rangle p$$
which seems to be saying, "it's not possible that after performing the constant action that does nothing, we will observe that $p$ holds," which also sounds like nonsense.
So, I'm guessing that there's some mistakes on the wikipedia page. What are the correct conventions?
I think I finally get it. When the page says "it does not terminate," the intended meaning is that the process $0$ never gets around to finishing. Thus, the statement $$[0]p$$
basically reads: "After the process that never gets around to finishing has finished, it is necessary that $p$ holds." This sounds completely reasonable.
So, the Wikipedia page is fine.