This is a follow-up to a question that I answered (though, not well enough).
Why is it that $\frac {\partial r}{\partial x} = \cos(\theta) = \frac {\partial x}{\partial r} = \frac {\partial}{\partial r}(r\cos(\theta))$?
$r$ and $x$ should be continuously differentiable so the inverse function theorem should apply. And I don't think $r$ should be a function of $\theta$ (even though $\frac {\partial r}{\partial x}$ is). Can someone explain this to me?

Let $F: (x,y)\to (r,\theta)$ the usual change of coordinates.
The Jacobian matrix for $F$ (expressed in terms of $(r,\theta)$) is given by:
\begin{pmatrix} \cos(\theta) & \sin(\theta) \\ -\sin(\theta)/r & \cos(\theta)/r \end{pmatrix}
The Jacobian matrix for $F^{-1}$ is given by:
\begin{pmatrix} \cos(\theta) & -r\sin(\theta) \\ \sin(\theta) & r\cos(\theta) \end{pmatrix}
So IFT works.